CPJE Law Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which facility setting is defined by telepharmacy rules?
• Under protocol, furnishing prescription NRT requires a minimum of _____ hours of approved CE.
• Drug take back service: Timeframe for discontinuation (D/C) of the service.
• What are the two dates a prescriber must include on multiple Schedule II prescriptions under the 2007 work-around?
• Each PIC self-assessment form will be kept in the pharmacy for _____.
• When should Patient Package Inserts (PPI) be given to patients?
• Substitution between long-acting and short-acting forms with the same active ingredients is permitted?
• Travel medicine training program duration must be at least how many hours?
• In community pharmacy operations, who must sign for and receive drugs delivered to licensed premises?
• Pharmacy selling the Schedule II drug is responsible for forwarding which copy of the DEA Form 222 to the DEA and by when?
• All controlled drugs expire after how long from the date of issue?
• DEA Form _____: Ordering Scheduled I & II Drugs.
• What is diversion?
• Within how many days must the PCP be notified of the drugs dispensed, or the patient provided with a written drug record?
• Which agency requires that a logbook for pseudoephedrine/ephedrine purchases be kept for at least 2 years?
• If a pharmacy becomes aware that a patient has been harmed by a compounded product prepared by the pharmacy, MedWatch reporting to the FDA must occur within how many hours?
• Repackaging must be performed according to Current Good Manufacturing Practices (CGMPs).
• Which screening result would lead to avoiding nicotine gum?
• An AB-rated generic drug is therapeutically equivalent to the reference listed drug.
• Where should controlled prescription records be kept and for how long?
• What distance must the supervising pharmacy and the remote telepharmacy site be within?
• Which statement about biosimilar interchangeability is true?
• What is a biosimilar?
• A PIC can supervise up to _____ pharmacies as long as they are within _____ driving miles of each other.
• Which oral emergency contraceptive does the purchaser need to be 17 y/o or older?
• Under California law, schedule II inventory must be conducted at least every how many months?
• Recordkeeping of medication error/ quality assurance reports must be kept for how long?
• If a non-controlled prescription has a PRN refill written for a 90-day supply, how many refills can you give to the patient?
• Class I Recall is defined as dangerous or defective products that predictably could cause serious health problems or death.
• Which statement regarding directions for use is true?
• For Addyi, which item must be included in patient counseling?
• CSOS stands for Controlled Substances Ordering System. It is used as an alternative to ordering which schedule?
• Can you fill a Schedule II prescription from an out-of-state prescriber?
• Can a returned drug from a patient be returned to stock and dispensed to another patient?
• Dispensing data to CURES must be submitted with what frequency?
• For isotretinoin, what requirement must be met before dispensing each prescription?
• Which methadone dose is typically indicated for opioid addiction (not for pain)?
• An additional PIC self-assessment must be completed within 30 days if a NEW PERMIT is issued, when the pharmacy has A NEW PIC, or when the pharmacy MOVES TO A NEW LOCATION.
• Prescriptions written by a living prescriber that dies remain valid until refills are gone and no more than what time frames (whichever comes first) for controlled vs uncontrolled substances?
• Recordkeeping of DEA forms 222 and power of attorney forms must be kept for how many years?
• For a recall notice involving a compounded drug prepared by an outsourcing facility and intended for California, the recipient must be contacted within 12 hours and the BOP within 24 hours. Which option lists these timeframes?
• When calculating the limits for Schedule III and IV refills, the original fill is NOT a refill and is NOT included when determining the limit.
• Can a pharmacist receive schedules II prescriptions over the phone and reduce the Rx to writing?
• Partial filling for terminally ill patients has what time deadline for the balance?
• Which statement is true about generic drug manufacturers?
• A pharmacist can supervise clerks at a time?
• OTC purchases of pseudoephedrine and ephedrine are limited to a maximum per 30 days for standard purchases. Which option reflects this limit?
• In Clozapine's REMS program, which laboratory value must be monitored?
• For chart orders of controlled substances, how long must a copy be kept on file?
• Loss or theft of controlled drugs must be reported to the California Board of Pharmacy within how many days?
• Opioid initial limits on Medicare Part D Rxs: If the patient did not receive an opioid in the last 60–90 days, the initial supply is limited to how many days?
• Which item must be included on the Rx label to identify the patient?
• A 1.5 inch intramuscular needle is used if weight thresholds are exceeded: which statement describes this condition?
• Which recordkeeping item must be kept for seven years?
• Pharmacists and interns who initiate and administer vaccines must complete ONE HOUR of continuing education on immunizations every ____ years.
• What does REMS stand for?
• Recordkeeping of records documenting return of drugs to wholesaler or manufacturer must be kept for how long?
• Which of the following are REMS requirements for Qsymia?
• Which of the following are types of written information provided to patients?
• For vaccination administration by intramuscular injection in a standard adult, the recommended needle length and angle are:
• Under the naloxone protocol, the pharmacist must complete at least how many hours of CE on naloxone use?
• An example of a Class I recall is a morphine tablet that is 10 times more potent than intended. What class is this recall?
• Which statement correctly describes continuing education requirements for pharmacists?
• All drug acquisition and disposition records must be kept for at least how long?
• If a controlled substance prescription has a printed date but the prescriber's signature is handwritten, can it be filled?
• Which item is a required component of the travel medications furnishing process?
• In injection technique, a higher gauge corresponds to which change in the needle?
• For how long must the DEA-required logbook for pseudoephedrine/ephedrine purchases be kept?
• Under the 2007 work-around, the total supply for multiple scheduled II prescriptions issued in one office visit cannot exceed how many days?
• Reporting Time Period: Change of PIC must be reported within how many days?
• An out-of-state prescriber writes a Schedule II prescription. The California pharmacist can fill it only if:
• In an inpatient setting, how many technicians are supervised per pharmacist for each pharmacist?
• Reporting Time Period: Change of pharmacist address or name must be reported within how many days?
• Partial filling for residents of long-term care facilities (LTCF) has what time deadline?
• Pharmacy license expires on the _____ day of the pharmacist's BIRTH MONTH.
• Which recordkeeping item is the biennial inventory of controlled substances?
• MedGuides may be provided for every Rx fill and may also be given if the patient or caregiver asks for it.
• Record of QA review must be immediately retrievable in the pharmacy and kept for at least how long from the date it was created?
• The first _____-year license cycle is EXEMPT from CE requirements since the pharmacist is considered up-to-date.
• Can a pharmacist receive schedules III, IV, and V verbally if the Rx is reduced to writing?
• Pharmacist must report to BOP ALL controlled losses within what calendar days for employee theft and what calendar days for any other type of loss?
• When a pharmacy transfers Schedule II drugs to a reverse distributor for destruction, what form must the reverse distributor issue to the pharmacy?
• Within how many days must an update be filed when there is a new pharmacy permit, a change in PIC, or a change in location?
• A veterinary prescription for a controlled substance must state the kind of animal and the name and address of the owner.
• Chart orders for non-controlled substances must be kept for how long, and chart orders for controlled substances must be kept for how long?
• Where should recalled drugs be stored in the pharmacy?
• If a non-controlled prescription has a PRN refill written for a 30-day supply, how many refills can you give to the patient?
• An invoice is used to distribute which schedules, and what information must it contain?
• Which item requires a 3-year retention specifically relating to purchase transactions?
• Scheduled V drugs can be refilled up to how long from the date of issue?
• Where do you store EXPIRED DRUGS in the pharmacy?
• Which is the correct order for the four items that must be listed on the Rx label in one area?
• Which item is NOT required on the unit-dose label produced by a centralized hospital packaging pharmacy?
• Methadone is an effective Schedule II drug used by opioid treatment clinics to treat which condition?
• Ongoing CE for smoking cessation therapy must be completed every _____.
• Partial filling of a Schedule II prescription is permissible if the pharmacy does not have sufficient stock of the drug. What is the deadline to fill the balance?
• ANC stands for which term?
• All records of DEA Form 222, invoices for Schedule III, IV, and V, and inventory records are kept for at least how long?
• Which percentage must the area containing the four label items occupy on the Rx label?
• As part of the NRT furnishing protocol, which action is required?
• Who can be involved in an Rx transfer from one pharmacy to another?
• Recordkeeping for patient acknowledgment of HIPAA must be kept for how many years?
• Recordkeeping of pseudoephedrine, ephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, and norpseudoephedrine sale logs must be kept for how long?
• Mandated reporters must file a written report within how many working days or hours after receiving information?
• Is Consumer Medication Information (CMI) FDA approved?
• For durable medical equipment billing, which type of order is required before billing Medicare?
• After a verbal order is entered by a nurse for a physician, how long does the prescriber have to countersign the order?
• During a federal/state/local emergency, a mobile pharmacy must cease activity within how many hours after the emergency ends?
• Which is a correct classification for the ketorolac injections recalled due to the possibility of particles in the vial?
• Which certification must be current to furnish travel medications?
• What is the maximum 30-day limit for standard purchases of pseudoephedrine and ephedrine?
• Which schedule of drugs has no refill limit?
• PIC must complete a biennial self-assessment before _____ of each odd-numbered year.
• Recordkeeping of controlled substance inventory must be kept for how many years?
• Travel medicine CE requirements specify completing travel medicine CE for at least how many hours and how often?
• Can controlled substances be accepted as donations?
• DEA Form 222 is used to order which schedule drug and can order up to how many items?
• Can pharmacies accept returned prescription drugs from patients (for example, if the wrong drug was dispensed)?
• What is the needle length for a standard intramuscular injection in an adult?
• Prescription records are kept for how long in total?
• Can you transfer a Schedule II prescription from one pharmacy to another?
• Which group is NOT eligible for Medicare Part D according to the material?
• Partial filling of a Schedule II prescription is permissible in an emergency oral prescription scenario. What is the deadline to fill the balance?
• Non-controlled drug prescriptions must stop dispensing after how long from the issue date?
• What is the daily limit for pseudoephedrine and ephedrine purchases?
• Which DEA form is used for reporting theft or significant loss of controlled substances?
• Which item must appear on a prescription to identify the prescriber’s credentials?
• Which of the following is a required component when furnishing naloxone under the protocol?
• Drug take back service: Timeframe to establish the service.
• Pharmacies may return non-controlled medications to wholesalers or manufacturers only if there is what requirement?
• Which REMS requires dispensing only through certified pharmacies?
• When dispensing naloxone to a patient, counseling can be waived.
• What is the normal resting heart rate range?
• Drugs that are donated cannot be already used or _____.
• The distance radius within which a hospital may operate a centralized packaging license for hospital facilities under common ownership is within how many miles?
• Class II Recall is defined as the drug has a reasonable probability that use or exposure can cause temporary or reversible adverse health consequences or where the probability of harm is remote.
• Which item must appear on every prescription?
• Schedule II drugs have how many refills allowed?
• Which drug classes pose a substantial risk of side effects in combination with alcohol and require a warning on the prescription label?
• Drug Abuse Treatment Act (DATA) 2000 permits physicians to prescribe and dispense Schedule III–V drugs to treat opioid addiction outside of opioid treatment clinics. In what year was this act enacted?
• Tampering with a collection bin must be reported within how many days?
• What is the minimum font size and typeface for the clustered label items?
• A pharmacist may administer epinephrine or diphenhydramine by injection to treat a severe allergic reaction.
• Do quantity limits under this act apply to prescriptions?
• Which statement about video in telepharmacy is true?
• Which statement best defines misbranding?
• A pharmacy can sell controlled substances to other pharmacies or prescribers without being registered as a distributor if the total dosage units does not exceed what percent of the total dosage units dispensed per calendar year?
• DEA Form 224 is the registration form for which entities to apply for their DEA number?
• Thalomid REMS Program (formerly STEPS) requires what prior to dispensing EACH prescription?
• Do pharmacists have to check CURES before dispensing scheduled II-IV drugs?
• PRN refills are ONLY acceptable for which type of substances, and they should not be refilled past how long from the date of issue?
• When repackaging drugs from a stock container into smaller quantities, which information must be included on the repackaged unit label?
• Which term describes a product with restricted distribution because it can be used to manufacture illicit drugs?
• Which drug classes require warning about impairment of the ability to operate a vehicle or vessel and must be included as an auxiliary label?
• There is _____ refill that can be given for schedule II drugs
• Recordkeeping of self-assessment forms must be kept for how long?
• Investigation of pharmacy medication errors must begin within how many business days from discovery?
• Loss in transit: which details must be included in the report to the DEA?
• Video recordings for telepharmacy must be kept for how long?
• Can a healthcare provider write a prescription to obtain controlled substances for stocking them for office use or to dispense directly to pts?
• The name and quantity of the drug or device must appear on a prescription.
• In telepharmacies, controlled substances must be stored how?
• What is the refill limit for Schedule V drugs?
• Patients who wish to receive an aid-in-dying drug must be: 18+, California resident, mentally competent, diagnosed with a terminal illness that will lead within 6 months confirmed by 2 physicians.
• How long must electronic records be retained in a pharmacy?
• Which items must be included in a detailed written order?
• Which item must appear on the unit-dose label produced by the centralized packaging pharmacy?
• What does the Orange Book’s two-letter code indicate?
• CE certificates must be kept for how many years?
• Which item is NOT on the unit-dose label?
• Is PPI FDA approved?
• Which class of recall indicates use or exposure is not likely to cause adverse health consequences?
• Prescribers must check CURES before prescribing Schedule II-IV prescriptions for the first time and every how many months after if the medication is part of the patient’s treatment?
• Which credential types are permitted for DEA-sanctioned validation in Electronic Prescription for Controlled Substances (EPCS)?
• Opioids initial prescription limit for Medicare Part D patients if the patient has not received an opioid in the last 60-90 days is:
• If losses are suspected, losses and known causes must be reported to the board within how many days of discovery, or within how many days if theft, self-use, or diversion by a licensee is the cause?
• To prevent drug diversion, patients must visit the clinic how often to receive a supervised methadone dose for a minimum of 3 months?
• Where should repackaged or resold drugs be stored in the pharmacy?
• If the pharmacy has only 1 pharmacist on duty, the pharmacist can leave for a break and meal periods for up to _____.
• Which records are included in the drug acquisition and disposition records?
• Recordkeeping of records documenting transfers or sales to other pharmacies, licenses, and prescribers must be kept for how long?
• What is the primary purpose of REMS?
• Which feature is included on every California security prescription form?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of written patient information?
• Which records must be kept for at least 3 years?
• REMS is designed to ensure that the benefits of certain drugs outweigh the risks.
• In order to keep pharmacists up-to-date with drug changes and treatment guidelines, _____ hours of continuing education must be completed during each 2-year license period.
• Recordkeeping of the certificate of completion for continuing education must be kept for how many years?
• For how long must records of inspections be kept?
• Prescribers who prescribe controlled substances must be registered with which organization?
• What REMS risk is associated with Saxenda?
• What is the federal frequency for conducting a Schedule II inventory?
• When should MedGuides be given to patients?
• All actions related to test ordering and management must be documented within how many hours in an accessible system?
• In the adulteration example, what issue was present with the medication?
• At the patient's request and with a valid prescription stating the supply, up to what self-administered hormonal contraceptive supply must a pharmacy dispense at one time?
• Which of the following are REMS requirements for ER/LA opioid analgesics?
• Which patient information must appear on a prescription?
• All controlled substances prescriptions are valid for how long and must be signed and dated by the prescriber?
• Can the patient receive the Rx to the MD and the patient hand it to the pharmacist?
• Copy 1 (brown) of the DEA Form 222 is kept by which party?
• The reporting period for changes in pharmacy permit is 30 days.
• Scheduled II drugs can be ordered with which methods?
• Thalomid REMS Program was previously known as what?
• When a pharmacy or outsourcing facility issues a recall notice about a compounded drug preparation that was dispensed in California and could cause serious adverse effects, within what times must the recipient be informed and the BOP be notified?
• A pharmacist must keep med profiles on all patients with Rx filled at the pharmacy, except when the pharmacist believes the patient will not return. For how long must each profile be kept from the date the last Rx was filled?
• Providers of home-use blood clotting products must maintain on-call availability how often?
• What is a REMS risk for Addyi?
• When a generic name is dispensed, which items must be included on the Rx label?
• The self-assessment form must be submitted on which schedule?
• When returning scheduled II drugs, Copy 2 (green) is kept by which party?
• Where should controlled drugs be stored in the pharmacy?
• For license renewals on or after July 1, 2019, at least ____ hours of pharmacy law and ethics must be included for each renewal.
• In a DEA registration number, the first letter identifies the type of registration.
• Which retention period is not used for any listed recordkeeping item?
• Which of the following are required components of the California schedule II inventory?
• Recordkeeping under the Drug Supply Chain Security Act for transaction information, history, and statement must be kept for how many years?
• All records related to Schedule II drugs need to be kept separate from other forms.
• Dispensing data for Schedule II-IV drugs must be submitted to CURES on a basis that is:
• For subcutaneous injections, the recommended needle length and angle are:
• Which sequence correctly describes how to verify the check digit of a DEA number?
• Copy 2 (green) of the DEA Form 222 is kept by which party?
• If the prescriber did not complete 'Void if quantity is not indicated' but the pharmacist verified the quantity with the prescriber via call and completed the form, can you still fill the Rx?
• Furnishing Self-administered Hormonal Contraceptives: minimum CE time is at least ______.
• Dispensing a 90-day supply in place of a shorter initial prescription for a non-controlled, non-psychiatric drug is allowed only if which statement is true?
• Which statement about the 2018 staffing law is true?
• Which event requires reporting within 30 days as part of permit requirements?
• Which statement about DUR is correct?
• Which of the following is a red flag to watch for when dispensing controlled substances?
• CSOS is used to order which schedules of controlled substances, and how many items can be ordered under CSOS?
• Which recordkeeping item must be kept for three years?
• Should the patient’s address be included on a prescription?
• In inpatient deliveries, drugs must be delivered to the licensed pharmacy premise within 1 working day after arrival. Which option reflects this timing?
• In the misbranding example, what was mislabeled on the container?
• What are the two types of oral emergency contraception?
• Which two categories have a 60-day deadline for partial fills?
• To whom must a PIC change be reported in writing within 30 days?
• Recordkeeping of hospital pharmacy chart order records for non-controlled drugs must be kept for how many years?
• In a community pharmacy, the ratio of pharmacists to technicians is 1 pharmacist to how many technicians?
• Which screening result would lead to avoiding nicotine nasal spray?
• Is the original fill included in calculating the 120-day supply limit for Schedule III/IV refills?
• How long must records of purchase invoices for all prescription drugs be retained?
• Which program is used to manage isotretinoin risk?
• Is a biosimilar automatically interchangeable with the reference product?
• If an outsourcing facility becomes aware that a patient has been harmed by a compounded product prepared by the facility, MedWatch reporting to the FDA must occur within how many days?
• The certificate of completion of pharmacist CEs must be kept for _____.
• Which item has a 2-year retention?
• Which phrase should appear on the Rx label to indicate the brand-name equivalent for a generic drug?
• Is MedGuides FDA approved?
• DUR stands for?
• A pharmacist can supervise how many technician trainees at a time?
• A BB-rated drug is NOT therapeutically equivalent.
• A Rx for a controlled substance is exempt from using a security form if the prescriber certifies that the patient is terminally ill by writing the words '_____(#) exemption' on a plain Rx form. What is the exemption?
• Regarding the 120-day supply limit for Schedule III/IV, which statement is true?
• Loss or theft of controlled drugs must be reported to the DEA within how many days?
• Schedule III–IV prescriptions may be refilled up to how many times within six months of the date written, and the total quantity dispensed cannot exceed how many days' supply?
• Which form must be used for written Schedule II-V prescriptions in California?
• When should Consumer Medication Information (CMI) be provided to patients?
• In institutionalized settings, when must a PPI be given?
• Biennial inventory of controlled substances must be kept for how many years?
• For chart orders of non-controlled substances, how long must a copy be kept on file?
• Which statement is true regarding the original fill counting toward the 120-day supply limit for Schedule III–IV medications?
• Medication error investigations must be completed within how many days of discovering the error?
• When there is a change in a pharmacy permit, within how many days must the change be reported to the regulatory authority?
• What is the format of the unique serial number printed on each California security prescription form?
• Which statement is true regarding out-of-state Schedule II prescriptions?
• DEA Form 106 is used to report what?
• Which recordkeeping item must be kept for six years (besides HIPAA acknowledgments)?
• Where do you store DRUG SAMPLES in the pharmacy?
• If a prescription is mailed or delivered, what type of notice must accompany it?
• In California, pharmacists can independently administer routine immunizations to anyone greater than or equal to ______ years old?
• How often must a supervising pharmacist travel to the remote telepharmacy site to conduct an inspection?
• Under SB 493, immunizations can be independently initiated and administered to patients at least how old?
• Recordkeeping for hospital pharmacy chart orders for controlled substances must be kept for how many years?
• Incidental disclosures are a HIPAA violation.
• Substitution between a combination drug product and its component single agents is permitted?
• Which statement best defines adulteration?
• For unopened sealed containers of controlled substances, which statement is correct?
• Loss or theft in transit must be reported to the DEA verbally immediately and in writing within how many days, and what must the report include?
• When a brand name is dispensed, which statement about labeling is correct?
• What form must accompany the transfer of Schedule II drugs?
• Can you fill a Schedule III-V prescription written by an out-of-state prescriber?
• Refills for Schedule III and IV drugs are limited to a maximum of how many refills within six months, and the total quantity (including refills) cannot exceed how many days' supply?
• Recordkeeping of community or clinic pharmacy prescriptions must be kept for how many years?
• When is the best time to perform a Schedule II inventory?
• DEA Form 225 is the registration form for which entities?
• Irregularities found in hospital drug supplies should be reported within how many hours to the PIC?
• An underserved location is defined as a location that does not have a pharmacy within ______.
• Where do you store recalled drugs in the pharmacy?
• A Schedule III–V prescription may be transferred more than once between two pharmacies if they share what condition?
• Terminally ill means a patient who is suffering from an incurable or irreversible illness that is expected to cause death within how long?
• DEA Form _____: Registration form for narcotic treatment programs.
• The prescriber’s license classification must be included on a prescription as part of prescriber information.
• While the pharmacist is away (not inside the pharmacy), only _____ medications that the pharmacist has already checked and which do not require patient counseling can be dispensed.
• A pharmacist may substitute between different formulations with the same active ingredients and equivalent strength and duration if it improves patient compliance.
• Recordkeeping of patient medication profile must be kept for how long?
• What option does the California security prescription form provide regarding substitution?
• For opened containers, which statements correctly describe the counting requirements?
• Which DEA form is used to report theft or loss of controlled substances?
• Pharmacists must complete 30 hours of continuing education every two years, except for which cycle?
• Under SB 493, which service may pharmacists provide after meeting training requirements?
• Is a DEA Form 222 required to transfer scheduled II drugs from central fill pharmacy to its retail pharmacy?
• Which of the following is a biosimilar to filgrastim (Neupogen)?
• For Schedule III-V transfers, what must a pharmacist maintain as a record?
• Which retention period is the longest among the listed recordkeeping items?
• Prescriber signature is required on prescriptions.
• Theft by or impairment of a license must be reported within how many days?
• What is a biosimilar for infliximab (Remicade)?
• How often must hospital drug supplies be inspected on each nursing unit or service area?
• Under SB 493, immunizations can be independently initiated and administered for patients who are at least what age?
• Theft or loss reports of controlled substances (DEA form 106) must be kept for how long?
• Which course must be completed as part of the requirements for furnishing travel medications?
• Pharmacy Take Back Program: Who is able to REMOVE the liner that contains the drugs from the collection bin?
• Where should non-controlled prescription records be kept and for how long?
• Where should Investigational New Drugs be stored in the pharmacy?
• Pharmacy Take Back Program: Can pharmacies use the collection bins to dispose of their own expired or recalled drugs?
• A PIC may supervise up to how many pharmacies, as long as they are within what distance?
• What is the normal respiratory rate range for adults?
• Which recordkeeping item must be kept for six years?
• Copy 3 (blue) of the DEA Form 222 is kept by which party when the order is placed?
• Pharmacy Take Back Program: Sharps/needles and illicit drugs in the collection bin can be placed in the bin.
• If a pharmacist suspects another pharmacist is impaired at work, they must report this to the board within how many days?
• When a verbal order is entered by a nurse for a physician, what must accompany the order?
• How often is a controlled substances inventory required?
• Dispensing Aid-In-Dying Drugs: Which sequence describes the process?
• Which DEA form is used for the record of controlled substances destroyed?
• Bankruptcy, insolvency, or receivership must be reported immediately to the appropriate regulatory body.
• Which statement correctly identifies a biosimilar for Remicade?
• Which statement best describes diversion?
• Pharmacist must notify each patient's PCP within _____ of the administration of any vaccine.
• Record of QA review must be kept for at least how long from the date it was created?
• Any change of PIC is reported by the pharmacy and the departing PIC to the board in writing within _____ days.
• What must California pharmacists do to access CURES?
• In Class I recall, who is typically responsible for deciding whether patients are contacted?
• CURES tracks prescriptions for which schedules?
• DEA Form 222 is used to distribute which schedules?
• In California, the exception to the prohibition on drug discounts applies when the discounted price is what relative to the cost of the generic?
• The pharmacist records the number of packages and the date received on Copy 3. The purchaser must keep Copy 3 for at least how many years?
• Prescriptions must be kept in the pharmacy for how long?
• Pharmacists must report significant losses and all theft to the local DEA office in writing within how many business days, and complete which DEA form?
• A new law in 2018 prohibits a community pharmacy from requiring a pharmacist to WORK ALONE.
• For Schedule III-V drugs sent to a reverse distributor for destruction, what must the pharmacy maintain?
• Copy 2 (green) of the DEA Form 222 is sent to which entity?
• A pharmacist can supervise _____ interns at any one time.
• Which recordkeeping item must be kept for four years?